I’m curious about your thoughts on artificial contraception or sterilization within the bonds of the marital union. How is the conjugal act between a husband who is sterilized for the purpose of preventing conception, and his wife morally distinguished from homosexual conjugal acts? For that matter, given that up until about 90 or so years ago all Christians agreed that any artificial prevention of the possibility of pregnancy resulting from the conjugal act, even within marriage, was sinful, what happened to change that previously universal opinion? Was the change the result of a new way of understanding scripture on this issue? If so, who decided the new understanding was correct?

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